Convincing Prophecies

  1. That the people of Israel would be scattered throughout the earth and then regathered to Israel ( Ezekial 34:12,13 and Ezek. 36:24, etc.)
  2. That the Jewish Messiah would be born in Bethlehem (Micah 5: 2 or 5:1 in the Masoretic Jewish translation).
  3. That the Messiah would enter Jerusalem in about 32 or 33 A.D. Daniel's Seventy Weeks prophecy and many others at this link.

THE HUMAN COVENANT Spoken of in The Ancient Hebrew Scriptures. …..IS IT JESUS?

Before reading the prophesies, please first read the following first three paragraphs. Much of the second two paragraphs, the scientists mentioned above, would have known.

The Proof:

No one ever spoke like Jesus. That was the conclusion of most of the founders of modern science. Nearly all of them became believers & followers of Jesus & many of them discussed these things with the atheists of their day. Einstein, although not a believer, said that mankind's major problems can never be resolved by science & technology, because they are moral problems and they require a moral solution. Yet, Einstein also said that by putting into practice the words of either Jesus or Moses all of mankind's major problems would be resolved. Einstein also said that no one ever spoke as "divinely" as Jesus. Soon, please read Jesus' words & decide for yourself.

The Talmud states Jesus was put to death because he was leading Israel astray with his sorcery. Roman historians Tacitus & Pliny the Younger also wrote of Jesus death under Pontius Pilate. So, we know He died &did miracles (sorcery). His disciples laid down their lives for His cause. If they hadn't seen the miracles, they wouldn't have laid down their lives. They would have just denied Him &saved their lives. The Dead Sea Scrolls contain documents predating Jesus (the same exact scrolls we can hold in our hands today, Jesus may also have also held in His). They state that a Jewish man will come &voluntarily die (Isaiah 53:12) for the sins of Israel &all others (Isaiah 49:6) &become the New Covenant (Isaiah 49:8) replacing the Old (Jeremiah 31:31-34). These prophesies &others prove to many today, as well as the greatest scientists - Sir Isaac Newton, Faraday, Boyle, J.C. Maxwell, etc. that Jesus is Messiah. They will prove it to anyone who seeks The truth with their entire being.

And I'd like to add: Only God (Jesus ) could heal blind folks who were born blind (easily disproved by The Sanhedrin if not true, & they would have stated so if not true - they couldn't disprove them, so they called it "sorcery" as they also called His raising of the dead &healing the deaf; lame &those w/leprosy). These very miracles were done to fulfill the prophesies of Isaiah 35. Jesus had also stated exactly those prophesies in response to John the Baptist when John was in prison. Jesus had to do fulfill the prophesies to prove He was Messiah. Without them, no one would have believed that He was Messiah. More miracles are not necessary today (although God does some occasionally), as we now have these same prophesies ( 2 Peter 1:19). Again, Jesus's eyewitnesses could have saved their lives just by merely saying they had lied about all the miracles. They wouldn't lie because they knew if He had been raised from the dead (more than 500 witnesses had seen Him & all been with Him after His resurrection, all at the same time) {1 Corinthians 15:6}, they would also be raised from the dead if they confessed what they had seen &had become believers of it all. They knew if He could raise Himself from the dead &do all those miracles, he would do as he promised &someday raise them from death also. So, he laid down His own life as prophesied in Isaiah 53:12. He said he would lay down His life &that no one could Take it from Him without His OK (John 10:15, etc.).

You still have a chance to research the Evidence, just as the world renowned expert in "evidence", Simon Greenleaf (co-founder of Harvard's Law School) did. Greenleaf wrote a book entitled "The Testimony of the Evangelists". On the back cover Greenleaf states:

"Let the Gospel's testimony be sifted, as it were given in a court of justice...The result.... will be an undoubting conviction of their integrity, ability and truth."

A "human" covenant? In the Jewish scriptures?

Many of my fellow Jews are unaware that G-d has promised a NEW Covenant that will replace the covenant given through Moses to Israel at about 1440 B.C..

Jeremiah 31:31-36 (about 600 B.C.) " Behold, the days come, saith the LORD, that I will make a new covenant with the house of Israel, and with the house of Judah: Not according to the covenant that I made with their fathers in the day that I took them by the hand to bring them out of the land of Egypt; which my covenant they brake, although I was an husband unto them, saith the LORD: But this shall be the covenant that I will make with the house of Israel; After those days, saith the LORD, I will put my law in their inward parts, and write it in their hearts; and will be their G-d, and they shall be my people. And they shall teach no more every man his neighbour, and every man his brother, saying, Know the LORD: for they shall all know me, from the least of them unto the greatest of them, saith the LORD; for I will forgive their iniquity, and I will remember their sin no more. Thus saith the LORD, which giveth the sun for a light by day, and the ordinances of the moon and of the stars for a light by night, which divideth the sea when the waves thereof roar; The LORD of hosts is his name: If those ordinances depart from before me, saith the LORD, then the seed of Israel also shall cease from being a nation before me for ever.

So, it is a fact that the Jewish Scriptures (Jeremiah 31:31-34) state that a New Covenant, wiping away all sins "forever", is promised to Israel.

It is also a fact that the Jewish scriptures teach in Isaiah chapter 53 that a "Man" (53:3) takes away the sins of all Jews (Is. 53:6).

Since all sins are removed by a "Man" and also by the New Covenant spoken of in Jeremiah above, is it possible that this "Man" is also the New Covenant for the Jews spoken of (above) in Jeremiah chapter 31?

In fact, many believe, (including myself) that is precisely what G-d is saying in Isaiah 49:8,9: "…and in a day of salvation have I helped thee: and I will preserve thee, and give thee for a covenant of the people, to establish the earth, to cause to inherit the desolate heritages; That thou mayest say to the prisoners, Go forth; to them that are in darkness, Shew yourselves. They shall feed in the ways, and their pastures shall be in all high places.

So, G-d says he will "give" this "Man" in Isaiah 49:8 as "a covenant". Just before this, in Is. 49:6, G-d calls this man His servant: "And he said, It is a light thing that thou shouldest be my servant to raise up the tribes of Jacob, and to restore the preserved of Israel: I will also give thee for a light to the Gentiles, that thou mayest be my salvation unto the end of the earth.

So, G-d has just said that this "servant", a "man," will be G-d's salvation to the end of the earth. And, as we have seen above, this man will take away all the sins of mankind, replacing the "old" covenant with the "new" covenant spoken of in Jeremiah 31.

That the New Covenant will be a "man" is also stated in Isaiah 42:1-9: "Behold my servant, whom I uphold; mine elect, in whom my soul delighteth, I have put my spirit upon him: he shall bring forth judgement to the Gentiles…I the Lord have called thee in righteousness,…and give thee for a COVENANT of the people, for a light of the Gentiles…"

What other man besides Jesus has ever come and claimed to have come here as a COVENANT to remove our sins? Just as scripture says would happen! A man acting as a COVENANT! The New Covenant promised in Jeremiah 31:31-36.

Then, after introducing this "covenant man" who takes away sins forever (Jeremiah 31:34) in Isaiah chapters 42 and 49, G-d details the way he is to remove our sins throughout Isaiah chapter 53.

53:8 "…for he was cut off out of the land of the living: for the transgression of my people was he stricken."

And then it is repeated again several times more, that this covenant man shall "die" to wipe away our sins:

Isaiah 53:9-12 " And he made his grave with the wicked, and with the rich in his death; because he had done no violence, neither was any deceit in his mouth. Yet it pleased the LORD to bruise him; he hath put him to grief: when thou shalt make his soul an offering for sin, he shall see his seed, he shall prolong his days, and the pleasure of the LORD shall prosper in his hand. He shall see of the travail of his soul, and shall be satisfied: by his knowledge shall my righteous servant justify many; for he shall bear their iniquities. Therefore will I divide him a portion with the great, and he shall divide the spoil with the strong; because he hath poured out his soul unto death: and he was numbered with the transgressors; and he bare the sin of many, and made intercession for the transgressors.

Notice the term "…make his soul an offering for sin". The Hebrew word for "offering for sin" is "asham". It is used over & over in the Jewish scriptures (more than 42 times) as an "offering" of an animal to die for the sins of the person who remains alive. So the Rabbi's explanation that this chapter is about Israel dying for the sins of Israel (or the sins of the Gentiles) would be contrary to the way "asham" is used over 42 times in the Jewish Scriptures. Here in Isaiah 53 it is consistent with its use elsewhere in Jewish Scriptures if the one "man" (or as elsewhere the "unblemished" animal) dies for the sins of "my people" who remain alive. That would be consistent of the many times it is used in Scripture previously. Especially on the day of Atonement (where one animal was sacrificed for the sins of all of Israel). And that is partly why so many animals were sacrificed. They all pointed to the self-sacrifice of The Messiah for all G-d's created humans. For the humans who would accept their Messiah. G-d judges those born before the birth of the Messiah in G-d's own way.

The Rabbi's suggestion would be a new unique way of looking at it (ie: millions of Jews would die in the Holocaust as a trespass offering that G-d is pleased with? (53:10). Why would a loving G-d be pleased with millions of His people suffering and dying for the sins of other Jews (or Gentiles)? That makes little sense. But He might be pleased with one man voluntarily dying to save many others. Would he not?

I believe the Rabbi's explain it this way (as millions of Jews dying in the Holocaust) to avoid just what the Scripture explicitly says. That the offering being made is a human male (Jesus) who is voluntarily dying for Israel's sins (see John 10:17,18) in the New Testament (Covenant) where Jesus says that he will die voluntarily: "Therefore doth my Father love me, because I lay down my life, that I might take it again. No man taketh it from me, but I lay it down of myself. I have power to lay it down, and I have power to take it again. This commandment legions of angels he could call down to protect him if he so chose: "Thinkest thou that I cannot now pray to my Father, and he shall presently give me more than twelve legions of angels? But how then shall the scriptures be fulfilled, that thus it must be"? Mathew 26:53,54).

After all, it says right there in 53:3 that "he" is a "man". It does not infer anywhere in the Scriptures that "he" is referring to a large group of men; women & children (about 6 million). And it also says "we" ("we" obviously the Jewish people – "despised" him. When did our fellow Jews ever despise the Holocaust victims? But here in 53:8 it states that "he" was "…cut off out of the land of the living: for the transgression of my people was he stricken." Who is "my people"? It is all of us Jews. We are G-d’s people in scripture (remember Moses speaking for G-d & saying to Pharoah "let my people go"?

Just read chapter 52 directly before Isaiah 53. There G-d makes it very clear that "my people" is Israel ( not the Gentiles).

Additionally, the Rabbis translate (53: 12) "Therefore will I divide him a portion among the great, And he shall divide the spoil with the mighty; Because he bared his soul unto death". This word translated here as "bared" ("Arah" in the original Hebrew) is used only 17 times in the Hebrew scriptures. It is translated as "uncovered;" as "bared", "bare", "empty", "uncover", rase","discover", "leave destitute", "make self naked" and "spread self" . It is translated elsewhere by the Rabbis as an action done voluntarily by the person himself, as in Isaiah 22:6 "and Elam bore the quiver…and Kir "uncovered" the shield". So, if the Rabbis chose the word "uncovered" for "Arah" elsewhere they could have translated this exact same word (Arah) in 53:12 as "…he "uncovered" his soul unto death, rather than "he bared" his soul unto death. In the King James it is translated as "he poured out his soul unto death". The Rabbis could also have translated "Arah" as "poured" as the Rabbis chose to do in translating Isaiah 32:15 as: " Until the spirit be poured upon us from on high, and the wilderness become…"

I think we can dismiss the current generally held notion by most Rabbis today, that the "righteous servant" in Isaiah 53 is speaking of the nation of Israel dying for the nation of Israel. This cannot be, since the servant is described in Is. 53:9 as one that has no deceit " …neither was any deceit in his mouth". And as a "righteous servant".

And since G-d calls Israel deceitful in Is. 48:1 (Hear ye this, O house of Jacob, which are called by the name of Israel, and are come forth out of the waters of Judah, which swear by the name of the LORD, and make mention of the G-d of Israel, but not in truth, nor in righteousness.

Therefore, if Israel who "…swear by the name of the LORD, and make mention of the G-d of Israel, but not in truth. (48:1)" Then Israel is deceitful since it is not in truth and therefore Israel cannot be the servant without "deceit in his mouth" who is spoken of in Is. 53:9.

So, this "Man" in Isaiah 53 cannot be "Israel". And since G-d calls him a "Man" let's take G-d at His word here, and accept for a moment that G-d truly means a Man when he calls him a Man (Is. 53:3)!

By the way, the book of Isaiah, was written about 700 B.C. Today, scholars have full copies of Isaiah, predating Jesus birth, among the other Dead Sea scrolls. Some of these copies that we can hold in our hands today, may have actually been held by Jesus of Nazareth. They are that old. Again, they have existed since prior to Jesus' birth.

So, moving forward, and giving a summation of what you just read, it is a fact that the Jewish scriptures state that a New Covenant man is coming to the Jews: (Isaiah 48:8,9) and also in Isaiah 42:6-8: ("I the LORD have called thee in righteousness, and will hold thine hand, and will keep thee, and give thee for a covenant of the people, for a light of the nations {Gentiles = Goyim}; To open the blind eyes, to bring out the prisoners from the prison, and them that sit in darkness out of the prison house. I am the LORD: that is my name: and my glory will I not give to another, neither my praise to graven images." I believe G-d is speaking there to the Messiah and saying He will give His glory only to the Messiah.

Most Jews know that it is only The Messiah who will eventually bring truth and peace to the Gentiles. And that is what the Jewish scriptures explicitly state here in Isaiah 42:6-8. That this "new covenant" person will set the Gentiles free (of their sins).

And isn't this precisely what Jesus proclaimed in the gospels (written by fellow Jews – Mathew & Mark & John) that he would do? As Jesus said: Mathew 26:28 "For this is my blood of the new testament (covenant), which is shed for many for the remission of sins."


Luke 24:44-47: "And he said unto them, These are the words which I spake unto you, while I was yet with you, that all things must be fulfilled, which were written in the law of Moses, and in the prophets, and in the psalms, concerning me. Then opened he their understanding, that they might understand the scriptures, And said unto them, Thus it is written, and thus it behoved Messiah to suffer, and to rise from the dead the third day: And that repentance and remission of sins should be preached in his name among all nations, beginning at Jerusalem."

Mathew 20:18,19 " Behold, we go up to Jerusalem; and the Son of man shall be betrayed unto the chief priests and unto the scribes, and they shall condemn him to death, And shall deliver him to the Gentiles to mock, and to scourge, and to crucify him: and the third day he shall rise again."

Or, John 10:17,18 "Therefore doth my Father love me, because I lay down my life, that I might take it again. No man taketh it from me, but I lay it down of myself. I have power to lay it down, and I have power to take it again. This commandment have I received of my Father."

Or, Mark 9:31 "For he taught his disciples, and said unto them, The Son of man is delivered into the hands of men, and they shall kill him; and after that he is killed, he shall rise the third day.

Again, as Jesus said: Mathew 26:28 "For this is my blood of the new testament (covenant), which is shed for many for the remission of sins."

How is it that Jesus was the very first man to ever explain that the New Covenant of Jeremiah wiping away all sin, was also to be the very death of the man spoken of in Isaiah 49:8 as a Covenant and in Isaiah chapter 53 ?

The Rabbis all agree that Isaiah 11:1-10 is Messianic and is speaking of the Messiah. In Isaiah 11:10 this Messiah is referred to as a "root" (Hebrew = "shoresh") of Jesse ( King David's father).

The same word "root ( shoresh) is used in Isaiah 53:2 to describe the man who bears others' sins ( taken on others' sins or iniquity is stated at least 8 times in the 12 verses of Isaiah 53) : 53:2 "For he shall grow up before him as a tender plant, and as a root (shoresh) out of a dry ground: he hath no form nor comeliness; and when we shall see him, there is no beauty that we should desire him.

So, if the Rabbi's recognize the "shoresh" (root) in Isaiah 11 as the Messiah, why won't they recognize the "shoresh" (root) in Isaiah 53:2 as also being the Messiah? Because it is very hard to accept something "new" if it seemingly causes you to break the Law (the first covenant). Yet, G-d said he would create a "new" covenant. And as we've shown, that the "new" covenant would be a man. The Messiah.

Just prior to that in verse 53:1 which introduces Chapter 53, it says: "Who hath believed our report? and to whom is the arm of the LORD revealed?"

The "arm" of the Lord often either implies or refers to the Messiah or G-d.

Is. 52:10 "The LORD hath made bare his holy arm in the eyes of all the nations; and all the ends of the earth shall see the salvation of our G-d. All knowledgeable Jews connect the Messiah pictured in the Old Testament (covenant) with "salvation".

G-d's "arm" being tied to ‘salvation" is repeated in Isaiah 59:16 "And he saw that there was no man, and wondered that there was no intercessor: therefore his arm brought salvation unto him; and his righteousness, it sustained him."

So, it is saying here that G-d's Arm shall bring salvation to Him (ie: His "arm" - His Messiah shall bring those saved to Him).

In Isaiah 40:10 it says that G-d's "arm" shall also "rule." "O Zion, that bringest good tidings, get thee up into the high mountain; O Jerusalem, that bringest good tidings, lift up thy voice with strength; lift it up, be not afraid; say unto the cities of Judah, Behold your G-d! Behold, the Lord GOD will come with strong hand, and his arm shall rule for him: behold, his reward is with him, and his work before him. He shall feed his flock like a shepherd: he shall gather the lambs with his arm, and carry them in his bosom, and shall gently lead those that are with young.

So, the Old Testament scriptures clearly state that G-d's "arm shall also rule for Him." Just what the Jewish scriptures have stated. That the Messiah shall rule.

All Rabbis agree that the Messiah shall "rule". See Isaiah 11:4 "But with righteousness shall he judge the poor, and reprove with equity for the meek of the earth: and he shall smite the earth with the rod of his mouth, and with the breath of his lips shall he slay the wicked."

When I say the Rabbis agree that the Messiah shall rule, I am referring to the Soncino edition of the Masoretic text which is used in virtually all Hebrew schools, and has a commentary for each book of the O.T. and the Rabbis agree there in the Soncino that it is referring, without question, to the Messiah ruling.

The Rabbis also agree that Micah 5:1-4 is referring to the Messiah. Here in Micah 5:2 we see that the Messiah is to "rule" "But thou, Bethlehem Ephratah, though thou be little among the thousands of Judah, yet out of thee shall he come forth unto me that is to be ruler in Israel; whose goings forth have been from of old, from everlasting."

So, when Isaiah 53:1 introduces the one who is to take our sins upon him, it also states that He is the "arm:" Notice how 53:1 introduces 53:2 with the word "for" linking 53:1 with the verses to follow: "Who would have believed our report? And to whom hath the arm of the Lord been revealed? For he shot up right forth as a sapling, And as a root {shoresh} out of a dry ground; He had no form nor comeliness, that we should look upon him, Nor beauty that we should delight in him. He was despised, and forsaken of men, A man of pains and acquainted with disease (or "grief") And as one fro whom men hide their face (read John 3:18-22) : He was despised and we esteemed him not" (Isaiah 53:1-3).

And we have just seen that the scriptures clearly state that the "arm" shall rule. And the Rabbis agree that Messiah shall rule. Therefore, Messiah & the "arm" are the same. "…to whom is the arm of the Lord revealed? For he shall grow up before him as a tender plant…he is despised and rejected of men…but he was wounded for our transgressions…" etc. (Isaiah 53:1-5) Note that the word "For" links verse 1 of Isaiah 53 with verse 2. It is clearly stating that the "arm" shall grow up before him and be despised by men yet shall die for our sins. Additionally, as stated before, God says that the "arm" shall "rule": "Behold, the Lord God will come with strong hand, and his arm shall rule for him…" Isaiah 40:10

Isaiah 51:5 My righteousness is near; my salvation is gone forth, and mine arms shall judge the people; the isles shall wait upon me, and on mine arm shall they trust.

All the people of the isles will eventually "trust" the Messiah, will they not?

There is even more tying Isaiah chapter 53 directly to the Messiah. "And ye shall seek Me and find Me, when ye shall search for Me with your whole heart" (Jeremiah 29:13).

Just some other thoughts here: Dead sea scrolls + end time prophesies – Jesus said when you see all these things know the end is near (Mt.24:33) – Many coming in my name saying I am Christ (Christ Consciousness) My gospel throughout the earth, (Iran + Russia - Meschech + Tubal vs. a regathered Israel (Ezek. 38:5) + Jerusalem a cup of staggering to all the peoples round about(Zechariah 12:2) and many more. (Major W.W.III possibility) just see our End Time Prophecies article.